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| Mitzvat Hanukkah (I)
III
REEVALUATING THE CELEBRATION
The questions raised above are premised on two points - conventionally held but by no means necessary - relating to the celebration of Hanukkah.
We are accustomed to reading normative statements in the Gemara - especially in the codified form of Mishnah/Baraita - as legislated enactments. When we read the Gemara further on which stipulates which B'rakhot are said when lighting Nerot Hanukkah, we read that (correctly) as a reflection of Rabbinic legislation.
That is not always the case, however - and we must read the text of the Mishnah/Baraita (or Gemara) sensitively to understand the underpinnings of the practice presented therein. More on this further on.
There is one "local" issue relating to Hanukkah which must be addressed at this point. Conventional wisdom maintains that we are celebrating the "miracle of the cruse of oil", recounted in BT Shabbat 21b:
What is [the reason of] Hanukkah? For our Rabbis taught: On the twenty-fifth of Kislev [commence] the days of Hanukkah, which are eight…For when the Greeks entered the Temple, they defiled all the oils therein, and when the Hasmonean dynasty prevailed against and defeated them, they made search and found only one cruse of oil which lay with the seal of the High Priest, but which contained sufficient for one day's lighting only; yet a miracle was wrought therein and they lit [the lamp] therewith for eight days. The following year these [days] were appointed a Festival with [the recital of] Hallel and thanksgiving.
This is commonly understood to be the flagship statement which establishes the rationale for the holiday - and places the "miracle of the cruse of oil" at its center. This understanding led the Beit Yosef (OC 670 s.v. v'haTa'am) to ask the famous question - since there was enough oil for one days and it burned for eight days, there are only seven "miracle" days. Why then do we celebrate for eight days?
So many responses have been given to this question (e.g. one day is a celebration of the military victory; they originally divided the oil into eighths) that a compilation of answers, titled Ner Ish uVeito was recently published in book form.
The question itself is premised on a questionable read of this passage and a debatable understanding of the celebration.
Besides the many alternate presentations of the holiday in relatively early sources which ignore the "miracle of the cruse of oil" (e.g. the Book of Maccabees - see further on) or relegate it to a secondary role (e.g. Rambam MT Hanukkah 3:1) the passage itself may be understood differently.
The text does not read "on account of this they established a holiday", rather it retells the story of the Hasmonean victory and the miracle of the oil - and the holiday. A simple read of this text leaves us with the impression that the celebration was established to commemorate the victory - and the "miracle of the cruse of oil" served a secondary purpose in that establishment. This is not only a viable read of the passage - it is also the most reasonable way to understand the celebration itself.
Let's consider: If everything that otherwise took place, such as the great military victory, the purification of the Beit haMikdash and the restoration of Jewish sovereignty to Eretz Yisra'el, had happened without benefit of the miracle of the oil, would we have reason to celebrate and establish a holiday? Certainly - we have Purim as a model for a celebration of a Jewish victory without apparent or obvious miracles.
On the other hand, if none of the other salvations had occurred - if the Greeks had not been ejected from the Mikdash, if their terrible decrees were not rescinded (by force) and if their sovereignty was not usurped - but a hardy band of zealots snuck into the Beit HaMikdash and miraculously lit the Menorah for eight days with one day's worth of oil - would there be any reason for a holiday? Certainly not.
We must conclude that the role of the miracle was not to be a raison d'etre for the holiday - rather as an indicator of Divine support/approval for the war of the Hashmonaim. (See Arukh haShulhan 670:5).
That being the case, we can re-assess Beit Yosef's question and ask it a bit differently. Considering that Hanukkah is a celebration of the restoration of Jewish sovereignty, the purification of the Mikdash and the liberation from Greek religious oppression, why do we celebrate for eight days?
We will return to this point a bit further down - but first, let's revisit the first (questionable) premise noted above: That this Baraita is read as a series of legislated steps in the celebration of Hanukkah.
Note the language of the Baraita: The Mitzvah of Hanukkah is Ner Ish uVeito - the Mehadrin light one per person etc. The various steps are not presented as legislated "levels of performance"; rather as customs practiced by different groups. Those who went to the utmost degree in beautifying the Mitzvah had two different ways of fulfilling this "performance level" - reflected in the two approaches suggested by Beit Shammai and Beit Hillel.
We already have the information needed to answer the second and third questions…but we'll hold off until we've established the necessary premises to complete the thesis.
IV
THE CELEBRATION:
DEDICATION OF THE SECOND MIKDASH
Although by the time of the Hasmonean wars, the Beit haMikdash had been standing for over 350 years (since its rebuilding in 516 BCE), there was a critical component missing there. The original construction of the Beit HaMikdash and its idealized form were always associated with the Jewish sovereign (see, inter alia, II Sh'muel 7:1-2). Even in the description of the destruction of the first Mikdash, the text tells us that N'vu-chadnezzar:
…burned the house of Hashem, and the king’s house…(II M'lakhim 25:9)
When the B'nei Yehudah returned to "Yehud M'dinta" under the patronage of Koresh (538 BCE), they were allowed to build the Mikdash - but it was always dependent on the beneficence of the Persian rulers. For that reason, the building was soon halted - and did not recommence for nearly twenty years until the second year of Daryavesh. (see Ezra 4:1-5:2)
In a very real sense, the second Mikdash lacked a core component - and that rendered it "second rate" (see Haggai, 2:3; Ezra 3:12).
From Persian domination, Yerushalayim passed to Greek control (332 BCE); at no time was Judea independent. It was only with the wondrous and miraculous victory of the Hashmona'im that Israelite sovereignty was restored to Judea - thus completing that critical constituent of the Kedushat haMikdash.
This report from I Maccabees confirms this understanding of the celebration:
Then they took unhewn stones, as the law directs, and built a new altar like the former one. They also rebuilt the sanctuary and the interior of the temple, and consecrated the courts. They made new holy vessels, and brought the lampstand, the altar of incense, and the table into the temple. Then they offered incense on the altar and lit the lamps on the lampstand, and these gave light in the temple. They placed the bread on the table and hung up the curtains. Thus they finished all the work they had undertaken. Early in the morning on the twenty-fifth day of the ninth month, which is the month of Kislev, in the one hundred forty-eighth year, they rose and offered sacrifice, as the law directs, on the new altar of burnt offering that they had built.At the very season and on the very day that the Gentiles had profaned it, it was dedicated with songs and harps and lutes and cymbals. All the people fell on their faces and worshiped and blessed Heaven, who had prospered them. So they celebrated the dedication of the altar for eight days, and joyfully offered burnt offerings; they offered a sacrifice of well-being and a thanksgiving offering.(I Maccabees 4:47-56)
V
NOW…TO THE QUESTIONS
Understanding that the celebration of Hanukkah is focused on the rededication of the Beit haMikdash - a process which began 350 years earlier and was only now completed - allows us to revisit our questions and respond.
1) Why is the fundamental form of performance Ner Ish uVeito?
Since we are celebrating the Beit haMikdash, the most basic method whereby each Jew can commemorate this is by recognizing the Mikdash M'at (mini-Mikdash) which is his house (see Ramban's comments at Bamidbar 8:2). This is not a celebration which fundamentally devolves upon the individual since it is not individual salvation which is being commemorated - rather the restoration of the seat of Jewish sanctity combined with Jewish sovereignty in that place. Note that the language - Ish uVeito (a man and his household) - implies a measure of sovereignty.
2) Why is the Hiddur Mitzvah delineated here?
3) Why is the Hiddur Mitzvah not limited by the financial "cap" of one-third?
As mentioned above, the Mehadrin were not following legislation as much as expressing their own (more intense) way of celebration. Why did they choose to celebrate this way?
Much as the home may serve as the Mikdash M'at, the individual who is moved to attach himself to this celebration would want to have his own persona identified with the Mikdash. He would not be satisfied with a "family representation". Hence, the Mehadrin would ensure that there be one Ner per person.
4) Why is the ideal form of performance built on ascending or descending sequence?
The Beit haMikdash is the focus of all of our spiritual yearning and the ideal locus of Divine instruction. It is associated with process much more than with product. (see our discussion on Parashiot Vayyikra-Tzav). As such, it stands to reason that the most perfect way of expressing this celebration is by demonstrating "process" - either by enhancing or diminishing the lights. As to our query about Beit Shammai's reasoning: We must remember that many processes in life are built around abatement - (e.g. dieting, working on character traits etc.); perhaps even more than "increasing."
5) What is the rationale behind the second Amoraic approach?
Since the celebration is Beit haMikdash-related, we have the Beit haMikdash principle of Ma'alin baKodesh to guide Beit Hillel's formula. The general rule in the Mikdash is that all matters must continue to ascend. What then are we to make of Beit Shammai's reasoning?
Perhaps this passage from II Maccabees will enlighten us:
It happened that on the same day on which the sanctuary had been profaned by the foreigners, the purification of the sanctuary took place, that is, on the twenty-fifth day of the same month, which was Kislev. They celebrated it for eight days with rejoicing, in the manner of the festival of booths, remembering how not long before, during the festival of booths, they had been wandering in the mountains and caves like wild animals. Therefore, carrying ivy-wreathed wands and beautiful branches and also fronds of palm, they offered hymns of thanksgiving to him who had given success to the purifying of his own holy place. They decreed by public edict, ratified by vote, that the whole nation of the Jews should observe these days every year. (II Maccabees 5-8)
As we can see, the original celebration of Hanukkah was meant to be a second Sukkot (it was even referred to as "Sukkot of Kislev" in the first century BCE). Since we have already established that following a nightly sequence-change is the ideal form of Hiddur Mitzvah, it stands to reason that instead of adopting the general Beit haMikdash rule of Ma'alin baKodesh, we would prefer the specific exception to this rule associated with Hanukkah's model - Sukkot.
VI
FINAL THOUGHTS…IN THE MEANTIME
We did not answer the final question regarding the elders of Sidon. Next week's shiur will address that, as we present Rav Kook's analysis of this difficult sugya. In that context, we will see much more satisfying responses to all of these questions…but we certainly have food for thought over the next week.
Hag Urim Sameach. | |
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| Mikra, Copyright © 2011 by Rabbi Yitzchak Etshalom and Torah.org. The author is Educational Coordinator of the Jewish Studies Institute of the Yeshiva of Los Angeles. |
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